India is treating a patient who is frequently late or misses appointments. The patient has a history of poor time management and has apologized for their behavior. What is the MOST appropriate action for the physical therapist to take in this situation?  
A. Ignore the patient's tardiness or missed appointments and continue with treatment as usual 
B. Explain the importance of being on time and set clear expectations for the patient's attendance 
C. Discharge the patient from treatment for noncompliance 
D. Report the patient's behavior to their primary care physician.
LINKS MENTIONED:     

 Did you get this question wrong?! If you were stuck between two answers and selected the wrong one, then you need to visit www.NPTEPASS.com, to learn about the #1 solution to STOP getting stuck.     
 Are you looking for a bundle of Coach K’s Top MSK Cheatsheets? Look no further: www.nptecheatsheets.com


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Patient Tardiness

NPTE Clinical Files is a podcast from the creator of Dominating the NPTE, hosted by Kyle Rice. NPTE Clinical Files explains a true clinical scenario in the form of a mock NPTE-based question. Each question is followed by a set of answer choices, where Dr. Kyle Rice explains the right answer with a detailed rationale. Each season covers all of the major systems and topics found in physical therapy and likely to be found on an NPTE. NPTE Clinical Files gives the Physical Therapist a weekly opportunity to solve clinical puzzles while learning the latest research related to the topic. Support this podcast: https://podcasters.spotify.com/pod/show/thepthustle/support

Health & Fitness

Caden is a physical therapist who notes that a patient with a recent ACL reconstruction is reluctant to perform weight-bearing exercises. The patient expresses fear of re-injury. The MOST appropriate response to facilitate rehabilitation progress would involve:
A. Encouraging the patient to ignore the fear and push through discomfort.
B. Implementing graded exposure therapy and psychological support to address fear-avoidance behaviors.
C. Focusing exclusively on non-weight-bearing exercises until the fear subsides.
D. Increasing the intensity of weight-bearing exercises to quickly regain strength.
LINKS MENTIONED:

 NPTE Tips & Tricks: www.nptegroup.com
 PT Hustle Phone Number: (727) 732-4573
  Free Cheatsheets: www.nptecheatsheets.com


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Support this podcast: https://podcasters.spotify.com/pod/show/thepthustle/support

ACL Reconstruction Rehabilitation

Xavier is a patient who recently underwent hip replacement surgery and is now at a rehabilitation facility with a weight-bearing as tolerated (WBAT) status. The patient is 75 years old with mild Parkinson’s disease, affecting his balance and coordination. Given these considerations, which assistive device would be MOST appropriate for this patient during the initial phase of recovery?
A) Standard cane
B) Quad cane
C) Front-wheeled walker
D) Rollator walker
LINKS MENTIONED:

 Truelearn: USE CODE: PTH020
 Get Your Episode Cheatsheet here: https://www.nptecheatsheet.com/assistive-ad
  NPTE Tips & Tricks: www.nptegroup.com


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Support this podcast: https://podcasters.spotify.com/pod/show/thepthustle/support

Assistive Device Prescription 2

Gerard arrives at physical therapy reporting acute lower back pain following an attempt to lift a heavy box. The pain radiates into both lower extremities constantly. During examination, all lumbar motions exacerbate the pain, and the patient prefers to stand and sit with increased lumbar flexion. Which pathology is MOST likely present?
A) Lumbar Herniated Disc
B) Facet Joint Syndrome
C) Sacroiliac Joint Dysfunction
D) Ankylosing Spondylitis


LINKS MENTIONED:

 NPTE Tips & Tricks: www.nptegroup.com
 Truelearn: USE CODE: PTH020
  PT Hustle Phone Number: (727) 732-4573


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Support this podcast: https://podcasters.spotify.com/pod/show/thepthustle/support

Acute Low Back Pain

Margot, a 53-year-old woman, presents to physical therapy with bilateral, symmetrical enlargement of her legs extending from her hips to her ankles, sparing the feet. She reports the condition is painful and has worsened over several years. Skin texture is normal, and there is no pitting edema. Which condition is MOST consistent with these findings?
A) Chronic venous insufficiency
B) Obesity-related lymphedema
C) Primary lymphedema
D) Lipedema
LINKS MENTIONED:

 PT Hustle Phone Number: (727) 732-4573
 Get Your Episode Cheatsheet HERE 
  NPTE Tips & Tricks: www.nptegroup.com
  Truelearn: USE CODE: PTH020


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Support this podcast: https://podcasters.spotify.com/pod/show/thepthustle/support

Lower Extremity Lymphedema

Jerry, a patient with type 2 diabetes, has been prescribed metformin to manage his blood glucose levels. The physical therapist understands that metformin’s primary function is to:
A) Stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin.
B) Decrease the liver's production of glucose.
C) Increase the sensitivity of insulin receptors on cells.
D) Slow the absorption of sugar from the intestines.
LINKS MENTIONED:

 NPTE Tips & Tricks: www.nptegroup.com
 Get Your Episode Cheatsheet here: https://www.nptecheatsheet.com/meds
  Truelearn: USE CODE: PTH020
  PT Hustle Phone Number: (727) 732-4573


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Support this podcast: https://podcasters.spotify.com/pod/show/thepthustle/support

Patient Tardiness

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