1) Is Melchizedek the pre-incarnate Christ, and if not, how did he have "no beginning or end"?2)Are the Archangels the 7 Spirits of God, and are they 7 manifestations of the Holy Spirit?  Would that explain how Gabriel "went into" Mary?3) Did Satan execute Jesus so he could usher the end of the 70 generations?https://www.facebook.com/pg/MatthewMiller49https://twitter.com/matthewmiller49https://matthewmiller49.tumblr.com/https://accordingtothescripture.wordpress.com

Extreme Q&A #1

Biblical Topics that are NOT "thus saith the Lord"

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The manifest embodiment is sometimes referred to as an incarnation. The translation of avatar as "incarnation" has been questioned by Christian theologians, who state that an incarnation is in flesh and imperfect, while avatar is mythical and perfect.

Melchizedek: The Divine Avatar

The who, what, where, when and why of the Second Incursion

Deyuel, Astarte, and  the Bull

A former king built the Temple of the Seven Lights of the Earth, but he did not complete its head. Since a remote time, people had abandoned it, without order expressing their words. Since that time earthquakes and lightning had dispersed its sun-dried clay; the bricks of the casing had split, and the earth of the interior had been scattered in heaps."TOWER OF BABEL STELE

Seven Servers of the Tower of Babel

The original Hebrew term sâtan (Hebrew: שָּׂטָן‎) is a generic noun meaning "accuser" or "adversary", which is used throughout the Hebrew Bible to refer to ordinary human adversaries, as well as a specific supernatural entity. The word is derived from a verb meaning primarily "to obstruct, oppose". When it is used without the definite article (simply satan), the word can refer to any accuser, but when it is used with the definite article (ha-satan), it usually refers specifically to the heavenly accuser: the satan.Ha-Satan with the definite article occurs 13 times in the Masoretic Text, in two books of the Hebrew Bible: Job ch. 1–2 (10×) and Zechariah 3:1–2 (3×). Satan without the definite article is used in 10 instances, of which two are translated diabolos in the Septuagint and "Satan" in the King James Version. This being the case, is Satan a singular entity or a group of entities? Is "The Satan" used even as "The Angel of the Lord" is?

Ordo Satanas Part II

The original Hebrew term sâtan (Hebrew: שָּׂטָן‎) is a generic noun meaning "accuser" or "adversary", which is used throughout the Hebrew Bible to refer to ordinary human adversaries, as well as a specific supernatural entity. The word is derived from a verb meaning primarily "to obstruct, oppose".[10] When it is used without the definite article (simply satan), the word can refer to any accuser,[9] but when it is used with the definite article (ha-satan), it usually refers specifically to the heavenly accuser: the satan.Ha-Satan with the definite article occurs 13 times in the Masoretic Text, in two books of the Hebrew Bible: Job ch. 1–2 (10×) and Zechariah 3:1–2 (3×). Satan without the definite article is used in 10 instances, of which two are translated diabolos in the Septuagint and "Satan" in the King James Version.  This being the case, is Satan a singular entity or a group of entities?  Is "The Satan" used even as "The Angel of the Lord" is?

Extreme Q&A #1

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