Last week, in your interpretation of Romans 2:29, you replaced Christian for Jew as an application. Instead of what Paul wrote—“For he is a Jew who is one inwardly, and real circumcision is a matter of the heart; spiritual and not literal”—you read: “For he is a Christian who is one inwardly, and real baptism is a matter of the heart; spiritual and not literal.”  If this is an accurate application—replacing circumcision with baptism—than doesn’t this imply that the sacrament of baptism, like circumcision, is merely a matter of the heart and faith, with no kind of literal sacramental effect? That it is merely symbolic?

Thanks, Gene