We're talking about violence, folks. The ruling class enacts violence against working people every day through its institutions, laws, and law enforcement. Why don't we identify these as violence, then? We find that because capitalists control the mechanism that create laws, they have a monopoly on state-sanctioned violence, which the working class may never use in their self defense. But is the violence used to oppress people morally equal to the violence used to escape that oppression?

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