Building on his statement that there is no partiality with God and that He judges everyone according to his deeds, he answers the logical question that arises from that, "if the Gentiles do not have the law and the Jews do, then how it is right to judge them by the same standard?" The logical answer is that the written law revealed through Moses condemns the Jews, but the law God wrote on the hearts of men might be different in explicitness, but it is not different in substance. The law of their conscience is enough for the Gentiles who did not have the written law to be justly equally condemned, because it is not the hearer of the law that is justified in the sight of God but the doer.