<p>John Owen, as well as some contemporary postmillennialists, interpret 2 Peter <a href="https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pA7Shp11Rh4&t=190s" rel="nofollow">3:10</a>-13 as having already occurred in 70 A.D. Is this correct?</p>

John Owen, as well as some contemporary postmillennialists, interpret 2 Peter 3:10-13 as having already occurred in 70 A.D. Is this correct?

<p>John Owen, as well as some contemporary postmillennialists, interpret 2 Peter <a href="https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pA7Shp11Rh4&amp;t=190s" rel="noopener noreferrer">3:10</a>-13 as having already occurred in 70 A.D. Is this correct?</p>

John Owen's Preterist Interpretation of 2 Peter 3:10-13

Particular theology for Particular Baptists... (and anyone else who can put up with us).

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John Owen's Preterist Interpretation of 2 Peter 3:10-13

John Owen's Preterist Interpretation of 2 Peter 3:10-13