The names "Jesus" and "Lazarus" were quite popular at the time of Christ, but they are not highly represented in the Gospels and Acts. But the use of classic disambiguators for Jesus and Lazarus are well explained by the fact that there would have been others with the same name at the time. In the case of Jesus, this is illustrated even in a separation between the way the narrators consistently speak of Jesus in the narrative voice, without needing to disambiguate (since there is only one Jesus that anyone would think they are talking about) and the use of disambiguators by persons in the stories set at the time, where it would be understandably unclear which "Jesus" was in view.

I also examine a convoluted and rather garbled attempt on the part of Gregor and Blais to claim that they have a superior fictionalization hypothesis to explain the low frequency of the name "Lazarus" in the Gospels and Acts.