There is a seeming mystery in the fact that Jesus was baptised by John the Baptist whose baptism is commonly considered to be a baptism of repentance. How then, would such a baptism apply to One who was sinless?
There is a seeming mystery in the fact that Jesus was baptised by John the Baptist whose baptism is commonly considered to be a baptism of repentance. How then, would such a baptism apply to One who was sinless?