Be baptized, continued
Galatians 3:27Colossians 2:9-12 – The parallels between circumcision and baptism. Be careful not to stretch these parallels too far!I Peter 3:21What is the proper method for baptism?Strong: “to immerse, submerge; to make whelmed (i.e. fully wet).”Zodhiates: “Immerse, submerge for a religious purpose, to overwhelm, saturate”Mounce: “The verb baptize literally means ‘to put or go under water.’”Vine describes the word’s use outside of the Bible: It “was used among the Greeks to signify the dyeing of a garment, or the drawing of water by dipping a vessel into another.”John 3:23Mark 1:9-10Acts 8:38Since we don’t read about pouring or sprinkling in the New Testament, how did they get started?251 – First recorded case of pouring was on Novation. He was too sick to be immersed, so they put pillows around him on a couch and drenched him in water. This was called “clinic baptism.” It was decided that if the sick person got healthier they should be immersed.257 – Baptism by sprinkling for adults was first used as an exception for those on sick beds, but it caused great dispute.753 – Sprinkling for those on sick beds officially accepted.1311 – Baptism by sprinkling accepted as the universal standard instead of immersion for all, not just the sick. (Council of Ravenna)Source: https://www.bible.ca/cath-new-doctrines.htmIs the water special or holy?No. The act of baptism saves us, not because of any power found in the water itself, but because God said to be baptized. It is an act of obedience.Isn’t baptism an outward sign of an inward grace (an outward show of the fact that one’s sins have already been forgiven)?No.That is nowhere taught, exemplified, or implied in the Bible.It contradicts the passages about baptism.It does not fit the Greek.Why did Paul say, “Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel” (I Corinthians 1:17)?Keep this in its context.Harmonize this with other clear passages.Recognize their “not … but” method of emphasis.I John 3:18John 6:27I Peter 3:3-4
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