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Would Jesus have been tempted as a man or as God, since he is both? How would I respond if a friendsays it would ahve been easy for him to overcome temptation as God's son, when I know that isn't true?
Karl mentioned this at the end of TBT: If the world is enslaved to sin and the devil, who is in control? God or Satan? What are the implications for us who are saved, yet still tempted?
Was it wrong for the OT kings, judges, prophets to "test" God for asking for a sign? But often the OT doesn't portray as wrongful/sinful. Pls help
About testing: Mal. 3:10 talks about God saying to Israel "put me to the test..." IS this just hypothetical or God's command to the Israelites as they turn and repent from their sin/rebellion/adultery? God says he'll bless them and throw open the flood gates of heaven! Hyerbole? Prophecy? A command? Or is it God being boldly confident in how he can bless us?
How can we help ourselves and others talk about our embarrassing and shameful sins - such as lust/pornography?
How can we make this something we can keep checking in with follow Christians on?
In what sense can judgement be a baptism? If baptism reflects an inward change - either repentance or salvation - what change is reflected by a baptism of judgement?
How do we think about the idea of fire being judgement with the fire that comes at Pentecost?
Where is the example of bad unity in the bible that Carl talked about?
Jesus was also kind, having dinner/meeting with many people (e.g. tax collectors, blind, paralysed, children) - was Jesus' mission only all about divisiveness - or is there some unity in Jesus' mission as well. How do these divisiveness and unity link together in a way that makes sense?
How much can Ross bench?
What are the different Scriptures that made Matthew write about the Nazarene prophecy?
If, in v15 Jesus *fulfilled* the prophecy by Hosea, does this mean Hosea was never writing about Israel in the first place? If he was originally writing about Israel, in what sense is it a prophecy pointing forward to Jesus, as opposed to a type which we now, having seen Jesus, can look back on and understand? or, in other words, can a prophecy be a prophecy if the original readers would not have understood it as such?
Is Matthew trying to emphasise it was not Joseph's biological son? "He took THE CHILD and HIS MOTHER" (v14, v11, v13, v21) - multiple times it says this. Why not "His son or Joseph, his father"?
Is it wrong to ask God for guidance in your life?
Do the wise men exhibit proper/sincere worship?
Is it not also reasonable that Mary simply called the child "a supernatural cause" due to the extreme shame and ostracisation that would be involved with having sex and giving birth outside of marriage (especially with regards to the context of the time)?
If Jesus = Jeshua = God saves, how does Jesus = Immanuel = God with us? IS Immanuel a title like Christ? Or does God saves = God with us?
How is Jesus both Yeshua and Immanuel? Does he have two names?
Could Isaiah 9 indicate you could expect a baby to come to bring hope? God the Father?"
Why much more emphasis on Mary instead of Joseph throughout the Bible, besides this bit in Matthew 1?
Is the genealogy accurate? (in Matthew 1). Does it have to be?
How should we approach differences and inconsistencies in this genealogy? For example, the missing names compared to the OT or differences between this genealogy and the one found in Luke 3?
What is the significance of the number 14? Seems quite an arbitrary number
I wonder about the significance of Zerah, brother of Perez and in (taking?) Joseph's genealogy rather than Mary.
"How is Christ the offspring of Joseph/David/Abraham given Mary's virgin birth - is this to do with the unity in marriage?"
In referring to greek translations, how should we treat the Septuagint (esp Apocrypha)?
Q: Why is this different from Luke 3?
Thanks! :) What exactly is the y-axis of the diagram? Righteousness, fulfilment of promises? No need for contact, I'll be thinking.
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