Bava Batra 157 : Marc Chipkin : 2024-11-29 The house collapsed on someone and his father (or anyone he inherits), and there was a kesubah or debt against the son’s assets. If a borrower writes in the document that he mortgages “whatever properties I will acquire,” and he later acquired property- is it effective? If we say it is and one borrowed from two people, and then purchased property is there a precedence?