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When private land is taken for public purposes shouldn't it only belong to the government and not 'private entities'?
The government's recent land ordinance enables it to take away any privately-owned land for 5 types of infrastructure projects in the name of 'public purpose', with little or no scope for objections. It has even enlarged the meaning of public purpose to include private hospitals and educational institutions.
Shouldn't there be a clearer distinction between the private and the public?
When private land is taken for public purposes shouldn't it only belong to the government and not 'private entities'?
The government's recent land ordinance enables it to take away any privately-owned land for 5 types of infrastructure projects in the name of 'public purpose', with little or no scope for objections. It has even enlarged the meaning of public purpose to include private hospitals and educational institutions.
Shouldn't there be a clearer distinction between the private and the public?