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A physical therapist performs Spurling's test on a patient with right-sided upper extremity neural symptoms. The therapist begins the test by passively placing the patient's neck in right lateral flexion and extension. Before even applying axial compression, the patient reports that their upper extremity symptoms have been reproduced. Which of the following best explains the clinical significance of this test?
Option 1- Increased tension of the brachial plexus as it passes through the thoracic outlet
Option 2- Facet joint irritation from cervical lateral flexion and extension
Option 3- Instability of the upper cervical spine due to ligamentous laxity
Option 4- Compression of a cervical nerve root due to foraminal narrowing
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A physical therapist is examining a patient who presents with symptoms consistent with pronator syndrome. Which of the following findings would MOST likely be observed during the examination?
Option 1- Weakness of the wrist extensors
Option 2- Sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the hand
Option 3- Weakness of the finger flexors
Option 4- Pain over the lateral elbow
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A physical therapist is evaluating a patient with a suspected compression neuropathy of the median nerve. Which of the following findings would help confirm a diagnosis of anterior interosseous nerve syndrome over other median nerve neuropathies?
Option 1- Inability to perform an "OK" sign
Option 2- Sensory loss in the palm of the hand and lateral fingers
Option 3- Ape hand deformity
Option 4- Positive Tinel's sign at the cubital tunnel
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A patient presents with weakness isolated to the intrinsic muscles of the hand, specifically the adductor pollicis and the muscles of the hypothenar eminence. The therapist notes that all forearm muscles, the wrist flexors and wrist extensors, have full strength. Which of the following is the MOST likely site of nerve entrapment?
Option 1- Carpal tunnel
Option 2- Radial tunnel
Option 3- Cubital tunnel
Option 4- Tunnel of Guyon
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A patient is referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of right thoracic outlet syndrome. The physical therapist identifies that the patient's symptoms are being caused by entrapment at the costoclavicular space. Which of the following activities would MOST likely exacerbate the patient's symptoms?
1. Reaching overhead into a high cupboard
2. Carrying a heavy bag in the right arm
3. Looking over the left shoulder while driving
4. Looking upward to shave the neck
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A physical therapist performs the standing lumbar quadrant test (Kemp's test) on a patient with low back pain. The patient reports that their pain is intermittent and mostly isolated to the lumbar region, though can occasionally radiate to the buttock. During the test, the patient notes that only their lumbar pain is reproduced. Which structure is MOST directly loaded during this test?
1. Intervertebral disc and corresponding nerve root
2. Erector spinae muscle group
3. Lumbar facet joints
4. Iliolumbar ligament
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A physical therapist is preparing to perform the slump test on a patient with suspected lumbar radiculopathy. When correctly performing the slump test, which movement should be completed FIRST?
1. Cervical flexion
2. Ankle dorsiflexion
3. Trunk flexion
4. Knee extension
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A patient reports persistent burning and tingling along the medial aspects of the knee, lower leg, and ankle. The physical therapist suspects saphenous nerve involvement. Which of the following nerves would MOST closely mimic the sensory symptoms of saphenous nerve entrapment?
1. Obturator
2. Posterior tibial
3. Femoral
4. Sciatic
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A physical therapist performs Tinel's sign by tapping over the cubital tunnel. The patient reports tingling sensations consistent with a positive finding. Which region of the hand would MOST likely be affected?
1. Dorsal-lateral aspect of the hand and first web space
2. Palmar aspect of all five digits
3. Hypothenar eminence and fifth digit
4. Thenar eminence and lateral three digits
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A physical therapist performs a slump test on a patient with complaints of intermittent posterior leg pain and numbness. The patient reports increased symptoms when the neck is flexed during the test, but symptoms decrease when the neck is extended while maintaining knee extension and ankle dorsiflexion. What is the MOST accurate interpretation of this finding?
1. The symptoms are likely due to hamstring tightness
2. The test result is negative because pain improved with neck extension
3. The response suggests adverse neural tension involving the spinal cord or nerve roots
4. The findings are consistent with mechanical low back pain from a lumbar paraspinal strain
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From the publisher's feed
Welcome to NPTE Q&A presented by Scorebuilders. This podcast is for physical therapist and physical therapist assistant students studying to pass the National Physical Therapy Examinations. It…