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In Philippians 3, why does it appear that Paul is stating that the Law of God is no longer for us because of faith in Christ? Paul says: “not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God that depends on faith”
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In Philippians 3, why does it appear that Paul is stating that the Law of God is no longer for us because of faith in Christ? Paul says: “not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God that depends on faith”
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