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Welcome to Harry Potter Theory. Today we're discussing Harry and Voldemort's final showdown in the Deathly Hallows part 2; the day that Lord Voldemort's tyrannical regime finally came to an end. We're also going to be discussing why every time Harry and Voldemort meet and engage in combat (which happens a fair bit), they resort to using the same spells over and over again- with Voldemort using Avada Kedavra and Harry using Expelliarmus.
We see this in their graveyard duel in the Goblet of Fire, and we also see this in their final fated duel at the Battle of Hogwarts.
My question is this: WHY is it that Harry Potter resorts to Expelliarmus for (seemingly) every circumstance? With the wizarding world at stake, wouldn't it make sense for Harry to use something like the killing curse? Why would he rely so heavily on a glorified disarming charm? Wouldn't Harry want to guarantee surety of Voldemort's demise?
Yes Expelliarmus ended up working for Harry, largely- actually, EXCLUSIVELY due to extraneous circumstances- but I can't help but wonder why Harry would opt for a common duelling spell.
See Privacy Policy at https://art19.com/privacy and California Privacy Notice at https://art19.com/privacy#do-not-sell-my-info.
By Harry Potter Theory4.7
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Welcome to Harry Potter Theory. Today we're discussing Harry and Voldemort's final showdown in the Deathly Hallows part 2; the day that Lord Voldemort's tyrannical regime finally came to an end. We're also going to be discussing why every time Harry and Voldemort meet and engage in combat (which happens a fair bit), they resort to using the same spells over and over again- with Voldemort using Avada Kedavra and Harry using Expelliarmus.
We see this in their graveyard duel in the Goblet of Fire, and we also see this in their final fated duel at the Battle of Hogwarts.
My question is this: WHY is it that Harry Potter resorts to Expelliarmus for (seemingly) every circumstance? With the wizarding world at stake, wouldn't it make sense for Harry to use something like the killing curse? Why would he rely so heavily on a glorified disarming charm? Wouldn't Harry want to guarantee surety of Voldemort's demise?
Yes Expelliarmus ended up working for Harry, largely- actually, EXCLUSIVELY due to extraneous circumstances- but I can't help but wonder why Harry would opt for a common duelling spell.
See Privacy Policy at https://art19.com/privacy and California Privacy Notice at https://art19.com/privacy#do-not-sell-my-info.

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