Many in the USA and in Pittsburgh especially would claim they have no religious affiliations at all. These have been termed by pollsters as "nones." There are many false assumptions that religious "nones" have (they are almost faith commitments in and of themselves). In the first part of the message, Chris addresses 5 of these assumptions then proceeds to unpack Romans 6:1-4.
Romans 6:1-4 (ESV)
While the focus of this discussion guide is 6:1-4, the broader paragraph runs from v1 through v14. It is helpful to understand the broader flow and argument Paul is trying to make. It can be summarized:
Christ died for sins (vs 8-10)
Believers died with Christ (vs3-7)
Therefore: we died to sin (v2)
As Paul has done routinely through the letter so far, he turns again to using a “diatribe” style where Paul presents the questions of an imaginary opponent who disagrees with Paul. In this instance, the question in v1 is a response to Paul’s claim in 5:20 that where sin abounds, grace abounds more.
The argument Paul addresses is fairly simple: “Since we have been given grace and since God likes to forgive and grant grace, we should sin more so that we can receive more grace.” This concept is known as antinomianism (“without law”).
Believers can resonate with some truth here. God does enjoy giving grace and forgiving sins, but that should not be mistaken as a license to abuse grace. Grace should not propel us to willfully sin because “God’s grace covers that.” Rather, God’s grace should lead to righteousness (6:17-18).
Have you ever attempted to justify willful sin because God’s grace would cover you?
What is the appropriate response to our flesh and Satan trying to convince us to do wrong in the name of grace?
Paul’s response in v2 is familiar in Romans as well – By no means (“God forbid”, “Absolutely not”) – and is the strongest form of negation in the Greek language.
In v2, Paul uses a rhetorical question to make the claim that the believer’s state of being has changed. We have died to sin in that it no longer has power over us. We no longer serve sin (v6), and sin is no longer lord/master over us (v14).
When does this “death to sin” happen? Is it when Christ died? Is it at a person’s conversion?
What does it mean to live in sin? There are generally two possible options based on the text:
Underneath the lordship of sin
A lifestyle of habitual sin
Is it even possible for a Christian to live in sin? Is sin still a threat to the Christian?
Baptism is the outward sign of conversion (trusting in Christ), and the Roman Christians would have been familiar with water baptism as seen through the rhetorical phrase “do you not know.”
Baptism into Christ Jesus is the idea of union with Christ, and union with Christ is both in His life and in His death. See Galatians 3:27 for an additional text on baptism and union with Christ.
Paul comes to a conclusion in v4 signified by the use of the connecting word “therefore.” Paul’s conclusion uses baptism metaphorically to show that the baptism (immersion) denotes burial with Christ. This is not to say we were physically or spiritually present at Christ’s death, but in a redemptive-historical sense, it was in His death that our old selves (sinful natures) are buried in order that we can live in newness of life.
Paul’s description of baptism is meant to encompass the entire conversion experience. For NT writers and Christians, you could not divorce faith from baptism. Faith would lead to baptism, and baptism would be a testimony of a valid faith.
Baptism is not the instrument through which forgiveness of sins is given but is the evidence of a genuine faith.