In the book of Isaiah we get to read an amazing prophecy about the coming Messiah. When we line this prophecy up with the events of Jesus's life they fit to a point of precision that should amaze us and YET, it would have been so obscure to reader's in Isaiah's (or even Jesus's time) that to believe the events of Jesus's life were fabricated to REPLICATE this prophecy also doesn't seem very likely.

As awesome as it is that this prophecy stands as a cool proof text for Jesus as Messiah, something literarily occurs in this chapter that really stood out to me - the tense changes mid prophecy.

Instead of Isaiah saying, "He WILL come," he speaks as if He HAS come. Instead of Isaiah saying, He SHALL bear our sins," he speaks as if he HAS borne them already. At a certain point, he does switch to future tense. Why?

What can we learn from this interesting little piece of information? Why would Isaiah write a prophecy about the Messiah that actually reads BETTER for someone living during our time than someone living in his own?

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Logo: Matt Hernandez

Music: Acoustic Indie Folk Years By MarkJuly

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