A 28 year old assigned male at birth presents with the chief complaint of a "new problem in my private parts” He states he feels well otherwise. Which of the following would be most consistent with the clinical presentation of primary syphilis?

A. A three day history of purulent penile discharge with dysuria.

B. A one week history of a painless genital ulcer on the penile shaft.

C. A 5 day history of painful vesicular lesions over the penile glands, with some lesions now crusting over.

D. A one week history of N void dysuria without penile discharge.

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A 52-year-old man presents for an initial primary care visit at the nurse practitioners practice period he has not seen any health care providers since age 38, stating that he has been in good health. Social history, drinking approximately 2 beers per night over the weekend, two nights per week, has a 5 pack year cigarette smoking history, having taken up smoking when he was in college, and quit at age 22. He reports feeling well and without chief complaint or chronic health problems.  He asks about what kind of cancer screening he should have. The NP advisors which of the following?

A. Colonoscopy 

B. Prostate specific antigen (PSA) 

C. Low dose chest CT

D. Given his history, no routine cancer screening is advised. 

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A 10-year-old of Middle Eastern ancestry , assigned female at birth, is seen for routine well child care. 

She is generally healthy and plays soccer, reporting excellent exercise tolerance, stating, “I’m the fastest midfield on the team.” Physical examination is within normal limits with Tanner stage 2. Height and weight are at 40% tile, consistent with previous measures. Laboratory evaluation reveals a mild microcytic hypochromic anemia with a NL RDW. This likely represents which of the following?

A. Vitamin B 12 deficiency

B. G6PD deficiency

C. Iron deficiency

D. Beta thalassemia minor

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A 70 year old man with a 35 year history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, and a 20 year history of type 2 diabetes presents. He was recently diagnosed with systolic heart failure, presenting with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. Prior clinical assessment revealed the murmur of mitral regurgitation. Which of the following would the NP anticipate finding on today’s physical exam?  

A. A mid to late systolic murmur that follows a mid systolic click. 

B. In early to mid systolic murmur harsh in quality, that radiates to the neck. 

C. A holosystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla.

D. A localized mid to late diastolic murmur.

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Which of the two following findings would be anticipated in the normal funduscopic exam of a healthy 40-year-old woman who is normotensive, generally in good health and without ocular complaint?  

A. Arteriovenous nicking

B. Optic cup to disc ratio < .0.5

C. Retinal arteries are brighter and narrower than veins  

D. Slight bulging of the optic disk

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Which of the following is most consistent with the clinical presentation of a person with folate-deficiency anemia? 

A. A 45-year-old woman with uterine fibroids, menorrhagia and a microcytic, hypochromic anemia with elevated RDW 

B. A 35-year-old woman with newly diagnosed systemic lupus and a normocytic, normochromic anemia with NL RDW 

C. A 40-year-old woman with alcohol use disorder who drinks 5-6 glasses of wine per day and a macrocytic normocytic anemia with an elevated RDW 

D. A 65 yo woman with a 20 year-history of hypothyroidism presenting with a 6-month history of stocking-glove neuropathy and a macrocytic, normochromic anemia with an elevated RDW.  

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A 70 year old man with a history of BPH, HTN and dyslipidemia presents with a 3-day history of perineal pain, intermittent fever, dysuria, and difficulty initiating urine stream. He denies GI upset and is taking fluids without difficulty. He denies sexual activity with others for the past three years. He is alert, oriented and appears slightly uncomfortable while seated. Abdominal and scrotal exam are WNL, there is no penile discharge and digital rectal exam reveals a tender, enlarged prostate. UA reveals positive leukocyte esterase and > 10 WBCs per HPF. With a working diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis, which of the following is the most appropriate antimicrobial option in this clinical scenario?  

A. Ciprofloxacin PO x 10 days 

B. IM Ceftriaxone as a one-time dose with doxycycline PO BID X 10 days 

C. IV piperacillin with tazobactam for 5 days 

D. Nitrofurantoin PO BID x 5 days.  

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Which of the following clinical scenarios is most consistent with an older adult presenting with acute bacterial prostatitis?  

A. A 65  year old male who presents with a 6 month history of urinary frequency, occasional difficulty initiating urine stream, without dysuria or fever. GU exam within normal limits with the exception of prostate enlargement.  

B. A 50-year-old male with a 4 day history of increased urinary frequency, end-void dysuria, and intermittent fever. GU exam reveals suprapubic tenderness,  without  prostatic enlargement or scrotal abnormalities.  

C. A 70 year old man with a 3-day history of perineal pain, intermittent fever, dysuria, and difficulty initiating urine stream. Scrotal exam WNL and digital rectal exam reveals a tender, enlarged prostate.  

D. A 78 year old man with a 3 month history of intermittent gross hematuria and urinary frequency without dysuria. GU exam is WNL with the exam of a nontender enlarged prostate with multiple nodular lesions.  

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The NP sees a 74-year-old woman with a BMI=30 kg/m2 who has a 30-year history of type 2 diabetes, HTN, and dyslipidemia. Pertinent social history includes the following: a retired elementary school teacher who lives in a 1-story home with her spouse and adult child, nonsmoker, drinks approximately 2, 5 oz glasses of wine per month, and walks approximately 2 miles per day. Her current medications include telmisartan, HCTZ, rosuvastatin, metformin, semaglutide and canagliflozin at optimized doses, and current A1c=9.2%. Her current A1c= 9.2% and is at HTN and lipid goal. Prior mediations have included sitagliptin, with patient stating, “That medication did not help my sugar at all.” She states she is adherent to her medications and dietary advice. Her eGFR is within acceptable parameters and she is feeling well. Physical exams are unremarkable. 

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? 

A. Advise that her A1c is at an age-acceptable level.  

B. Add post-meal sliding scale rapid acting insulin 

C. Prescribe basal and pre meal insulin. 

D. Add oral glipizide.  

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Mrs. Mahem is a 68-year-old patient with a 25-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. In the past year, her A1c remains at around 8.5% with the use of the following medications: metformin, sitagliptin, and canagliflozin, at optimized doses and with adherence.  She states, “ I haven’t changed the way I eat and I walk about ½ h a day, just like I have for years”. Additional health issues include HTN and dyslipidemia, treated with medications and at therapeutic goal, and obesity with a BMI= 33. Her eGFR is 65. 

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of her diabetes?  

A. Add glyburide to enhance glycemic control.

B. Consider discontinuing metformin due to age and renal function.

C. Advise that her glycemic control is adequate for an older adult. 

D. Prescribe semaglutide to help her achieve A1c goal.  

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