Many Christian leaders are now claiming the New Testament never condemns homosexuality, only abusive gay relationships, a common Roman practice at the time.

But if the Bible is accepting of loving gay relationships, why doesn’t it say that? And if it merely condemns abusive ones, why doesn’t it say that? Why does it give a condemnation of homosexuality that’s been interpreted as a complete condemnation for 2,000 years? Is Scripture really that unclear?

The only way to interpret the Bible this way is by ignoring the plain reading of the text. But we must let God’s Word speak to us, not twist it to make it say what we want it to say.