When a woman tells a shaliach to go get her get, and he goes the husband, tells him, and the husband hands it over "as she said," but R. Nachman maintains that she's still not divorced. The Gemara then discusses why he says this, and also where his analysis may go wrong (and she would be divorced). Where the wording and process are essential. Also, may a woman appoint a shaliach to accept a get? It's a machloket. But don't we need to be stringent and be careful lest she not really be divorced, and this could become a case of adultery or even chalitzah, depending.