Questions about whether it’s a bad sign when a church’s statement of faith says they believe the Bible is inerrant “in the original manuscripts,” how the Gospel of Mark can be inerrant if someone else added 16:9–20, and whether the Gospels were meant to be complementary.

Is it a red flag when a church’s statement of faith says they believe the Bible is inerrant “in the original manuscripts”?

How can we say the Gospel of Mark is the inerrant Word of God if someone added 16:9–20 into it?

Were the Gospels meant to be complementary? Did the writers intend for us to harmonize them?