Some Christian groups that back the King James only viewpoint cite the example of Acts 8:37 as an example of Bible alteration by modern translators. Could you please tell me why this isn't a problem? Could you also please frame your answer in light of the different Greek codices that are available? These groups seem to uphold the Textus receptus, while recent Bible translations seem to derive from the Vatican and Sinai ones. What guarantees us that these latter ones are to be trusted as the word of God?, and more on today's Open Line Monday with scriptural apologist John Martignoni.