The Talmud (in Yevamot 49b) tells us that Moses’ prophetic powers were exceptional because he saw “באספקלריא המאירה - through a clear looking glass.”  How, then, do we account for ambiguity in the Torah?  When we encounter a passage whose meaning is obscure, do we presume some failure in our own understanding?  Or is it possible that the Torah of Moses is sometimes deliberately ambiguous?