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The idea of “one law for both Israel and the foreigner” appears four times in the Torah. Does this mean Gentiles were under the entire law? We look at each passage to discover the answer. My hope is that this will help us respond more biblically the next time a Torah-keeper cites these verses to argue this issue.

I can’t tell you how many times I’ve heard someone quote the verse “There shall be one law for the native and for the stranger who sojourns with you” (Exodus 12:49) and use this to somehow support the idea that Gentile Christians today are under the Old Covenant law. The idea is that even under the Old Covenant, Gentiles were fully under the law, so the same must be true about  the New Covenant. That there is one law, and we are all under it. There are a number of problems with this line of logic, starting with the fact that that verse does not mean what they think it means.

Defending the Biblical Roots of Christianity
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Chapters
00:00 Intro
03:57 Exodus 12:49
08:44 Leviticus 24:22
14:42 Numbers 15:16
18:45 NUmbers 15:29
26:52 Wrap it up, Solberg