A 34-year-old woman presents with uncomplicated UTI. Her last menstrual period ended approximately 5 days ago and has a history of bilateral tubal ligation approximately 5 years ago. She is otherwise healthy, has not received a systemic antimicrobial in the past year, denies drug allergies, and is not taking any medications. Per local antibiogram,  E. coli resistance rate to TMP/SMX is about 25%. Which of the following is the best choice for her therapy? 

A. Prescribe a course of 3-day oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B. Order a single dose of IM ceftriaxone
C. Prescribe a 5-day course of oral nitrofurantoin
D. Advise that a 1-week course of oral ciprofloxacin therapy is needed

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