The NP sees a 74-year-old woman with a BMI=30 kg/m2 who has a 30-year history of type 2 diabetes, HTN, and dyslipidemia. Pertinent social history includes the following: a retired elementary school teacher who lives in a 1-story home with her spouse and adult child, nonsmoker, drinks approximately 2, 5 oz glasses of wine per month, and walks approximately 2 miles per day. Her current medications include telmisartan, HCTZ, rosuvastatin, metformin, semaglutide and canagliflozin at optimized doses, and current A1c=9.2%. Her current A1c= 9.2% and is at HTN and lipid goal. Prior mediations have included sitagliptin, with patient stating, “That medication did not help my sugar at all.” She states she is adherent to her medications and dietary advice. Her eGFR is within acceptable parameters and she is feeling well. Physical exams are unremarkable. 

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? 

A. Advise that her A1c is at an age-acceptable level.  

B. Add post-meal sliding scale rapid acting insulin 

C. Prescribe basal and pre meal insulin. 

D. Add oral glipizide.  

---

YouTube: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uZqb0nZpa8k&list=PLf0PFEPBXfq592b5zCthlxSNIEM-H-EtD&index=108

Visit fhea.com to learn more!