A 22-year-old woman presents for follow-up after a recent clinic, requested STI screening. Testing for Chlamydia trachomatis was positive. She states, “I am really surprised, I feel fine.”  Her current medications include combined oral contraceptive and her LMP was about 10 days ago, with appropriate timing and a  3 day light flow. The NP considers which of the following is the best option?
A. Given she is asymptomatic, no further intervention is needed
B. Oral azithromycin as a single dose should be offered
C. Testing for C. trachomatis should be repeated today
D. A 7-day course of oral doxycycline is advised

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