The Audio PANCE and PANRE Physician Assistant Board Review Podcast

By Smarty PANCE | The PA LifeScience Medicine Health & Fitness Education

The Audio PANCE and PANRE Physician Assistant Board Review Podcast episodes

January 01, 2015The Audio PANCE and PANRE Board Review Podcast Episode 11
The Audio PANCE and PANRE is an audio board review series that includes 10 Multiple Choice PANCE and PANRE Board Review Questions in each episode.
I hope you enjoy this free audio component to the examination portion of this site. The full series is available to all members of the PANCE and PANRE Academy.
You can download and listen to past FREE episodes here, on iTunes or Stitcher. (sometimes it takes a few hours to show up on iTunes after publication)
You can listen to the latest episode, download the transcript and take an interactive quiz of the questions below.
Download a Free PDF Transcript of the Questions and AnswersFREE PDF Transcript or view on Scribd
Listen Carefully Then Take The Quiz
Questions 1-10
The Audio PANCE and PANRE Episode 11
1. What is the initial treatment of choice for hyperthyroidism in a 10-week pregnant patient?
A. No treatment is necessary.
B. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
C. Radioiodine treatment
D. Subtotal thyroidectomy
Click here to see the answerB. Propylthiouracil (PTU) – This is the initial treatment of choice.
2. A patient presents with eye pain and blurred vision. Snellen testing reveals vision of 20/200 in the affected eye and 20/20 in the unaffected eye. Fluorescein staining reveals the presence of a dendritic ulcer. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Viral keratitis
B. Fungal corneal ulcer
C. Acanthamoeba keratitis
D. Bacterial corneal ulcer
Click here to see the answerA. Viral keratitis – Herpes Simplex virus is a common cause of dendritic ulceration noted on fluorescein staining.
And in case you were wondering:
B. Fungal corneal ulcers have an indolent course with intraocular infection being common but fluorescein staining is negative for a dendritic pattern.
C. Acanthamoeba keratitis has a waxing and waning course over several months and has no fluorescein staining in a dendritic pattern.
D. Bacterial corneal ulcers can progress aggressively resulting in corneal perforation. Fluorescein staining does not occur in a dendritic pattern.
3. A 63 year-old female with history of diabetes mellitus presents for blood pressure follow-up. At her last two visits her blood pressure was 150/92 and 152/96. Today in the office her blood pressure is 146/92. Recent blood work shows a Sodium 140 mEq/L, Potassium 4.2 mEq/L, BUN of 23 mg/dL, and Creatinine of 1.1 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial medication in this patient?
A. Terazosin (Hytrin)
B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
C. Lisinopril (Zestril)
D. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
Click here to see the answerC. Lisinopril (Zestril) – For the boards ACE inhibitors should be part of the initial treatment of hypertension in diabetics because of beneficial effects in diabetic nephropathy and is the most appropriate initial medication. In real practice, despite what we have been led to believe, it actually makes little difference which antihypertensive is used in diabetic patients just as long as we reach our blood pressure goals.
4. What is the EKG manifestation of cardiac end-organ damage due to hypertension?
A. Right bundle branch block
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. ST segment elevation in lateral precordial leads
Click here to see the answerB. Left ventricular hypertrophy – Long-standing hypertension can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy with characteristic changes noted on EKG.
5. Annual blood pressure determinations should be obtained beginning at the age of
A. 3 years.
B. 5 years.
C. 12 years.
D. 18 years.
Click here to see the answerA. 3 years – Periodic measurements of blood pressure should be part of routine preventive health assessments beginning at the age of 3 years.
6. In adults and intravenous drug abusers, which of the following bones is most commonly affected with acute osteomyelitis?
A. Femur
B. Humerus
C. Vertebral spine
D. Tibia
Click here to see the answerC. Vertebral spine – The bones of the vertebral spine are most commonly affected in a patient with osteomyelitis. Organisms reach the well-perfused vertebral body of adults via spinal arteries and quickly spread from the end plate into the disk space and then to the adjacent vertebral body. The infection may originate in the urinary tract and intravenous drug use carries an increased risk of spinal infection.
7. Treatment of the patient with Pediculosis pubis consists of which of the following?
A. Permethrin (Nix) cream
B. Clotrimazole (Gyne-Lotrimin)
C. Podofilox (Condylox) solution
D. Selenium sulfide (Selsun) suspension
Click here to see the answerA. Permethrin 1% cream/shampoo is used to kill the louse and remove the eggs from the hair shafts.
8. A 43 year-old asymptomatic diabetic female is found to have an elevated total calcium level of 12.4 mg/dL. Which of the following tests must be assessed in order to evaluate this laboratory abnormality?
A. Intact parathyroid hormone
B. Serum albumin
C. 24 hour urine calcium level
D. Complete blood count
Click here to see the answerB. Serum albumin – Since approximately 50% of calcium is protein bound, total calcium levels should be interpreted relative to albumin levels.
9. Which of the following conditions would cause a positive Kussmaul’s sign on physical examination?
A. Left ventricular failure
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Constrictive pericarditis
Click here to see the answerD. Constrictive pericarditis – Kussmaul’s sign is an increase rather than the normal decrease in the CVP during inspiration. It is most often caused by severe right-sided heart failure; it is a frequent finding in patients with constrictive pericarditis or right ventricular infarction.
10. Treatment of Bell’s palsy includes which of the following?
A. Acyclovir
B. Reassurance of the patient’s recovery
C. Referral to a neurosurgeon
D. Electromyography
Click here to see the answerB. Reassurance of the patient’s recovery – Although I usually always treat with Acyclovir, Bell’s palsy is a peripheral neuropathy of cranial nerve VII. Although it has been suggested it may be related to an activation of herpes simplex virus, there is little empiric evidence for this. Approximately 60% of cases of Bell’s palsy recover without treatment and patient reassurance of this is advised. Electromyography may provide aid in the prognosis, but not as a treatment option. A neurosurgeon has no role in the management of Bell’s palsy.
Looking for all the episodes?
This FREE series is limited to every 3rd episode, you can download and enjoy the complete audio series by joining The PANCE and PANRE Exam Academy.
I will be be releasing new episodes every two weeks. The Academy is currently discounted, so sign up now.
This Podcast is also available on iTunes and Stitcher Radio for Android
iTunes: The Audio PANCE AND PANRE Podcast iTunes
Stitcher Radio: The Audio PANCE and PANRE Podcast Stitcher
9 min
January 01, 2015 The Audio PANCE and PANRE Board Review Podcast Episode 11
The Audio PANCE and PANRE is an audio board review series that includes 10 Multiple Choice PANCE and PANRE Board Review Questions in each episode.
I hope you enjoy this free audio component to the examination portion of this site. The full series is available to all members of the PANCE and PANRE Academy.

* You can download and listen to past FREE episodes here, on iTunes or Stitcher. (sometimes it takes a few hours to show up on iTunes after publication)
* You can listen to the latest episode, download the transcript and take an interactive quiz of the questions below.

Listen Carefully Then Take The Quiz
Questions 1-10
The Audio PANCE and PANRE Episode 11
1. What is the initial treatment of choice for hyperthyroidism in a 10-week pregnant patient?
A. No treatment is necessary.

B. Propylthiouracil (PTU)

C. Radioiodine treatment

D. Subtotal thyroidectomy
2. A patient presents with eye pain and blurred vision. Snellen testing reveals vision of 20/200 in the affected eye and 20/20 in the unaffected eye. Fluorescein staining reveals the presence of a dendritic ulcer. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Viral keratitis

B. Fungal corneal ulcer

C. Acanthamoeba keratitis

D. Bacterial corneal ulcer
And in case you were wondering:
B. Fungal corneal ulcers have an indolent course with intraocular infection being common but fluorescein staining is negative for a dendritic pattern.
C. Acanthamoeba keratitis has a waxing and waning course over several months and has no fluorescein staining in a dendritic pattern.
D. Bacterial corneal ulcers can progress aggressively resulting in corneal perforation. Fluorescein staining does not occur in a dendritic pattern.
3. A 63 year-old female with history of diabetes mellitus presents for blood pressure follow-up. At her last two visits her blood pressure was 150/92 and 152/96. Today in the office her blood pressure is 146/92. Recent blood work shows a Sodium 140 mEq/L, Potassium 4.2 mEq/L, BUN of 23 mg/dL, and Creatinine of 1.1 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial medication in this patient?
A. Terazosin (Hytrin)

B. Atenolol (Tenormin)

C. Lisinopril (Zestril)

D. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
4. What is the EKG manifestation of cardiac end-organ damage due to hypertension?
A. Right bundle branch block

B. Left ventricular hypertrophy

C. Right ventricular hypertrophy

D. ST segment elevation in lateral precordial leads
5. Annual blood pressure determinations should be obtained beginning at the age of
A. 3 years.

B. 5 years.

C. 12 years.

D. 18 years.
6. In adults and intravenous drug abusers, which of the following bones is most commonly affected with acute osteomyelitis?
A. Femur

B. Humerus

C. Vertebral spine

D. Tibia
7. Treatment of the patient with Pediculosis pubis consists of which of the following?
A. Permethrin (Nix) cream

B. Clotrimazole (Gyne-Lotrimin)

C. Podofilox (Condylox) solution

D. Selenium sulfide (Selsun) suspension
8. A 43 year-old asymptomatic diabetic female is found to have an elevated total calcium level of 12.4 mg/dL.
9 min
December 18, 2014The Audio PANCE and PANRE Board Review Podcast Episode 9
The Audio PANCE and PANRE is an audio board review series that includes 10 Multiple Choice PANCE and PANRE Board Review Questions in each episode.
I created this audio series to help you fill some downtime when you are unable to read (like in the car) with some useful board review.
I hope you enjoy this free audio component to the examination portion of this site. The full series is available to all members of the PANCE and PANRE Academy.
You can download and listen to past FREE episodes here or on iTunes.
You can listen to the latest episode and take an interactive quiz of the questions below.
Download a Free PDF Transcript of the Questions and AnswersFREE PDF Transcript
Listen Carefully Then Take The Quiz
Questions 1-10
The Audio PANCE and PANRE Episode 9
1. A 3 year-old girl is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which of the following disorders is this child at risk for in the future?
A. Asthma
B. Tinea pedis
C. Squamous carcinoma
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Click here to see the answerA. Up to 50% of patients with atopic dermatitis develop asthma and/or allergic rhinitis in the future.
2. A 3 year-old boy is seen in the office with a 5-day history of fever, erythema, edema of the hands and feet, a generalized rash over the body, bilateral conjunctival injections, fissuring and erythema of the lips, and cervical adenopathy. Antistreptolysin A (ASO) titer and throat culture are negative. The most serious systemic complication associated with this disorder is
A. renal.
B. cardiac.
C. pulmonary.
D. hepatic.
Click here to see the answerB. The patient most likely has Kawasaki syndrome. The major complication with this disorder is coronary artery aneurysms, which are reported in up to 20% of affected children. The etiology of this disorder is uncertain, although a bacterial toxin with super antigen properties may be involved.
3. Which of the following medication classes is the treatment of choice in a patient with variant or Prinzmetal’s angina?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Beta blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
Click here to see the answerA. Calcium channel blockers are effective prophylactically to treat coronary vasospasm associated with variant or Prinzmetal’s angina.
4. Pharmacologic treatment of a patient with gestational diabetes should consist of which of the following?
A. Oral hypoglycemic agents
B. Regular insulin
C. Oral corticosteroids
D. Glucagon
Click here to see the answerB. Regular insulin is the drug of choice as this will maintain the mother’s blood sugar but not cross the placenta.
5. Which of the following is an indication for vaccination against hepatitis A?
A. Illicit drug users
B. Health care workers
C. Renal dialysis patients
D. Routine vaccination starting at birth
Click here to see the answerA. Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for illicit drug users, anyone living or traveling to endemic areas, sewage workers, food handlers, homosexual and bisexual men, animal handlers, patients with a history of chronic liver disease or a clotting factor disease as well as children and workers in day care settings and institutions.
6. A 2 month-old infant presents for a routine health maintenance visit. The mother has been concerned about the infant’s hearing since birth. Physical examination reveals no apparent response to a sudden loud sound. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic evaluation?
A. audiometry
B. tympanometry
C. acoustic reflectometry
D. auditory-evoked potentials
Click here to see the answerD. Brainstem auditory-evoked potentials evaluate the sensory pathway and identify the site of any anatomical disruption. The test does not require any active response from the patient and is useful in the evaluation of suspected hearing loss in an infant.
7. A 53 year-old female status post abdominal hysterectomy 3 days ago suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. On exam, she is tachycardic and tachypneic with rales in the left lower lobe. A chest x-ray is unremarkable and an EKG reveals sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Atelectasis
B. Pneumothorax
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Myocardial infarction
Click here to see the answerC. This patient’s risk factors for pulmonary embolism include advanced age, surgery, and prolonged bedrest. While the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is difficult to make due to nonspecific clinical findings, the most common symptoms include pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea associated with tachypnea. Chest x-ray and EKG are usually normal.
8. Which of the following is an independent risk factor for development of a mesothelioma?
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Asbestos exposure
C. Radon gas exposure
D. Chronic obstructive lung disease
Click here to see the answerB. Studies confirm the association of asbestos exposure to the development of mesothelioma.
9. A 34 year-old female with a history of asthma presents with complaints of increasing asthma attacks. The patient states she has been well-controlled on albuterol inhaler until one month ago. Since that time she notices that she has had to use her inhaler 3-4 times a week and also has had increasing nighttime use averaging about three episodes in the past month. Spirometry reveals greater than 85% predicted value. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention at this time?
A. Oral prednisone
B. Oral theophylline (Theo-Dur)
C. Salmeterol (Serevent) inhaler
D. Beclomethasone (Qvar)inhaler
Click here to see the answerD. This patient has progressed to mild persistent asthma. In addition to her inhaled beta2-agonist (albuterol), she should be started on an anti-inflammatory agent. Inhaled corticosteroids, such as beclomethasone, are preferred for long-term control.
10. Which of the following mechanisms leads to a primary pneumothorax?
A. Penetrating or blunt trauma forces
B. Underlying lung cancer
C. Pressure of air in the pleural space exceeds room air pressure
D. Rupture of subpleural apical blebs due to high negative intrapleural pressures
Click here to see the answerD. A primary spontaneous pneumothorax is thought to result from a rupture of subpleural apical blebs secondary to high negative intrapleural pressures.
Looking for all the episodes?
This FREE series is limited to every 3rd episode, you can download and enjoy the complete audio series by joining The PANCE and PANRE Exam Academy.
I will be be releasing new episodes every two weeks. The Academy is currently discounted, so sign up now.
This Podcast is also available on iTunes and Stitcher Radio for Android
iTunes: The Audio PANCE AND PANRE Podcast iTunes
Stitcher Radio: The Audio PANCE and PANRE Podcast Stitcher
8 min
December 18, 2014 The Audio PANCE and PANRE Board Review Podcast Episode 9
The Audio PANCE and PANRE is an audio board review series that includes 10 Multiple Choice PANCE and PANRE Board Review Questions in each episode.
I created this audio series to help you fill some downtime when you are unable to read (like in the car) with some useful board review.
I hope you enjoy this free audio component to the examination portion of this site. The full series is available to all members of the PANCE and PANRE Academy.

* You can download and listen to past FREE episodes here or on iTunes.
* You can listen to the latest episode and take an interactive quiz of the questions below.

Listen Carefully Then Take The Quiz
Questions 1-10
The Audio PANCE and PANRE Episode 9
1. A 3 year-old girl is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which of the following disorders is this child at risk for in the future?
A. Asthma

B. Tinea pedis

C. Squamous carcinoma

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
2. A 3 year-old boy is seen in the office with a 5-day history of fever, erythema, edema of the hands and feet, a generalized rash over the body, bilateral conjunctival injections, fissuring and erythema of the lips, and cervical adenopathy. Antistreptolysin A (ASO) titer and throat culture are negative. The most serious systemic complication associated with this disorder is
A. renal.

B. cardiac.

C. pulmonary.

D. hepatic.
3. Which of the following medication classes is the treatment of choice in a patient with variant or Prinzmetal’s angina?
A. Calcium channel blockers

B. ACE inhibitors

C. Beta blockers

D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
4. Pharmacologic treatment of a patient with gestational diabetes should consist of which of the following?
A. Oral hypoglycemic agents

B. Regular insulin

C. Oral corticosteroids

D. Glucagon
5. Which of the following is an indication for vaccination against hepatitis A?
A. Illicit drug users

B. Health care workers

C. Renal dialysis patients

D. Routine vaccination starting at birth
6. A 2 month-old infant presents for a routine health maintenance visit. The mother has been concerned about the infant’s hearing since birth. Physical examination reveals no apparent response to a sudden loud sound. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic evaluation?
A. audiometry

B. tympanometry

C. acoustic reflectometry

D. auditory-evoked potentials
7. A 53 year-old female status post abdominal hysterectomy 3 days ago suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. On exam, she is tachycardic and tachypneic with rales in the left lower lobe. A chest x-ray is unremarkable and an EKG reveals sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Atelectasis

B. Pneumothorax

C. Pulmonary embolism

D. Myocardial infarction
8. Which of the following is an independent risk factor for development of a mesothelioma?
A. Cigarette smoking

B. Asbestos exposure

C. Radon gas exposure

D. Chronic obstructive lung disease
9. A 34 year-old female with a history of asthma presents with complaints of increasing asthma attacks. The patient states she has been well-controlled on albuterol inhaler until one month ago. Since that time she notices that she has had to use her inhaler 3-4 times...
8 min
November 08, 2014The Audio PANCE and PANRE Board Review Podcast Episode 7
The Audio PANCE and PANRE is an audio board review series that includes 10 Multiple Choice PANCE and PANRE Board Review Questions in each episode.
I created this audio series to help you fill some downtime when you are unable to read (like in the car) with some useful board review.
I hope you enjoy this free audio component to the examination portion of this site. The full series is available to all members of the PANCE and PANRE Academy.
Questions 1-10
1. Which of the following is a staphylococcal infection characterized by a localized red swollen and acutely tender abscess of the upper or lower eyelid?
A. Hordeolum
B. Uveitis
C. Chalazion
D. Dacryocystitis
Click here to see the answerA. Hordeolum (stye) is a staphylococcal infection characterized by a localized red swollen and acutely tender abscess of the upper or lower eyelid..
2. Progesterone influence on the breast tissue prior to menstruation causes
A. proliferation of the mammary ducts.
B. growth of the lobules and alveoli.
C. proliferation of Cooper’s ligaments.
D. increase in the number of glands of Montgomery.
Click here to see the answerB. Growth of the lobules and alveoli is under the influence of progesterone. Prior to menses, the breast swelling that women notice is a result of the progesterone which is secreted from the corpus luteum. During menses, the swelling subsides.
3. A 3 year-old girl is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which of the following disorders is this child at risk for in the future?
A. Asthma
B. Tinea pedis
C. Squamous carcinoma
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Click here to see the answerA. Up to 50% of patients with atopic dermatitis develop asthma and/or allergic rhinitis in the future.
4. A patient presents with chronic back pain. On physical examination testing, the patient is found to have abnormalities of proprioception and vibration discrimination. Which of the following portions of the spinal column are most likely affected?
A. Lateral spinothalamic tract
B. Ventral spinothalamic tract
C. Posterior column
D. Transection of the cord
Click here to see the answerC. The posterior column affects proprioception (position sense) and vibration sense.
5. A 44 year-old female presents for follow-up results of her lipid profile. She is asymptomatic and has a past medicalhistory of hypothyroidism treated with levothyroxine and hypertension controlled with atenolol (Tenormin). She drinks an average of 6 alcoholic beverages a day and smokes 1 pack per day for the last 32 years. Her family history is unremarkable for premature coronary artery disease. Her fasting blood glucose is 98 mg/dL, total cholesterol is 198 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol is 132 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol is 56 mg/dL and triglycerides of 90 mg/dL. Excluding LDL cholesterol levels, how many major risk factors for coronary artery disease does this female possess?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Click here to see the answerA. This patient’s major cardiac risk factors are smoking and hypertension in addition to the elevated LDL
cholesterol.
6. A 65 year-old patient with steroid-dependent chronic obstructive lung disease presents with a headache that has been increasing in severity over the past week, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. He denies fever, but has had photophobia and a stiff neck. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Transient ischemic attack
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. Migraine headache
D. Cryptococcosis
Click here to see the answerD. Cryptococcus is an opportunistic fungal infection that affects immunocompromised patients, including those with HIV, chronic steroid use, organ transplants, diabetes mellitus, and chronic renal or liver disease. The most common clinical presentation is that of meningitis; fever is present in only about half of patients.
7. A 40 year-old female presents with a 1.5 cm well-circumscribed mass noted on mammography in the right upper, outer quadrant. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate and should be done next?
A. Fine needle aspiration
B. BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genetic testing
C. Serum CA-125
D. Radiation therapy
Click here to see the answerA. Fine needle aspiration is fairly accurate, easily performed, and has minimal morbidity.
8. On examination of a pregnant patient the physician assistant notes the fundal height is at the level of the umbilicus. This corresponds to what gestational age?
A. 16 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
Click here to see the answerB. At 20-22 weeks, the fundal height is typically at the level of the umbilicus.
9. Which of the following is a common symptom associated with laryngotracheobronchitis (viral croup)?
A. Drooling
B. High fever
C. “Hot potato” voice
D. Barking cough
Click here to see the answerD. Viral croup is characterized by a history of upper respiratory tract symptoms followed by onset of a barking cough and stridor..
10. A 23 year-old female with history of asthma for the past 5 years presents with complaints of increasing shortness ofbreath for 2 days. Her asthma has been well-controlled until 2 days ago. Since yesterday, she has been using heralbuterol inhaler every 4 to 6 hours. She is normally very active, however yesterday she did not complete her 30minute exercise routine due to increasing dyspnea. She denies any cough, fever, recent surgeries, or use of oralcontraceptives. On examination, you note the presence of prolonged expiration and diffuse wheezing. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic evaluation prior to initiation of treatment?
A. Chest x-ray
B. Sputum gram stain
C. Peak flow
D. Ventilation-perfusion scan
Click here to see the answerC. A peak flow reading will help you to gauge her current extent of airflow obstruction and is helpful in monitoring the effectiveness of any treatment interventions.
Looking for all the episodes?
This FREE series is limited to every 3rd episode, you can download and enjoy the complete audio series by joining The PANCE and PANRE Exam Academy.
I will be be releasing new episodes every two weeks. The Academy is currently discounted at $35 for the entire year, so sign up now.
This Podcast is also available on iTunes and Stitcher Radio for Android
iTunes: The Audio PANCE AND PANRE Podcast iTunes
Stitcher Radio: The Audio PANCE and PANRE Podcast Stitcher
And, as always, if you haven’t already, make sure to download Brian Wallaces’ excellent Physician Assistant Exam Review Podcast. Follow along with Brian who covers new topics twice monthly and really does an amazing job! He is running a contest on his site to win some free goodies! You can sign up to win free stuff here!
8 min
November 08, 2014 The Audio PANCE and PANRE Board Review Podcast Episode 7
The Audio PANCE and PANRE is an audio board review series that includes 10 Multiple Choice PANCE and PANRE Board Review Questions in each episode.
I created this audio series to help you fill some downtime when you are unable to read (like in the car) with some useful board review.
I hope you enjoy this free audio component to the examination portion of this site. The full series is available to all members of the PANCE and PANRE Academy.
Questions 1-10
1. Which of the following is a staphylococcal infection characterized by a localized red swollen and acutely tender abscess of the upper or lower eyelid?
A. Hordeolum

B. Uveitis

C. Chalazion

D. Dacryocystitis
2. Progesterone influence on the breast tissue prior to menstruation causes
A. proliferation of the mammary ducts.

B. growth of the lobules and alveoli.

C. proliferation of Cooper’s ligaments.

D. increase in the number of glands of Montgomery.
3. A 3 year-old girl is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which of the following disorders is this child at risk for in the future?
A. Asthma

B. Tinea pedis

C. Squamous carcinoma

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
4. A patient presents with chronic back pain. On physical examination testing, the patient is found to have abnormalities of proprioception and vibration discrimination. Which of the following portions of the spinal column are most likely affected?
A. Lateral spinothalamic tract

B. Ventral spinothalamic tract

C. Posterior column

D. Transection of the cord
5. A 44 year-old female presents for follow-up results of her lipid profile. She is asymptomatic and has a past medicalhistory of hypothyroidism treated with levothyroxine and hypertension controlled with atenolol (Tenormin). She drinks an average of 6 alcoholic beverages a day and smokes 1 pack per day for the last 32 years. Her family history is unremarkable for premature coronary artery disease. Her fasting blood glucose is 98 mg/dL, total cholesterol is 198 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol is 132 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol is 56 mg/dL and triglycerides of 90 mg/dL. Excluding LDL cholesterol levels, how many major risk factors for coronary artery disease does this female possess?
A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5
6. A 65 year-old patient with steroid-dependent chronic obstructive lung disease presents with a headache that has been increasing in severity over the past week, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. He denies fever, but has had photophobia and a stiff neck. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Transient ischemic attack

B. Bacterial meningitis

C. Migraine headache

D. Cryptococcosis
7. A 40 year-old female presents with a 1.5 cm well-circumscribed mass noted on mammography in the right upper, outer quadrant. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate and should be done next?
A. Fine needle aspiration

B. BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genetic testing

C. Serum CA-125

D. Radiation therapy
8. On examination of a pregnant patient the physician assistant notes the fundal height is at the level of the umbilicus. This corresponds to what gestational age?
A. 16 weeks

B. 20 weeks

C. 24 weeks

D. 28 weeks
9. Which of the following is a common symptom associated with laryngotracheobronchitis (viral croup)?
A. Drooling

B. High fever

C. “Hot potato” voice

D. Barking cough
10. A 23 year-old female with history of asthma for the past 5 years presents with complaints of increasing shortness ofbreath for 2 days. Her asthma has been well-controlled until 2 day...
8 min
September 04, 2014The Audio PANCE and PANRE Board Review Podcast Episode 5
The Audio PANCE and PANRE is an audio board review series that includes 10 Multiple Choice PANCE and PANRE Board Review Questions in each episode.
I created this audio series to help you fill some downtime when you are unable to read (like in the car) with some useful board review.
I hope you enjoy this free audio component to the examination portion of this site. The full series is available to all members of the PANCE and PANRE Academy.
Questions
6 y/o male presents w/ hemarthrosis of the L knee. Coag studies: PT 12.5s (normal12-14 sec), INR 1.0, aPTT 58s (normal 18-28 sec), platelet 430,000/microliter (normal 150,000-450,000/microliter), & bleeding time 4m (normal 2-12m). Which is the best tx option for this pt?
A. Desmopressin acetate
B. Corticosteroids
C. Vitamin K
D. Cryoprecipitate
Click here to see the answerD. Hemophilia A presents with a prolonged aPTT and normal platelet count and function. Hemophilia A is treated with factor VIII concentrate or cryoprecipitate.
HIV+ pt presents w/ worsening dementia, fever, HA, & R hemiparesis. Brain MRI reveals 6 lesions throughout the brain that show ring enhancement & surrounding edema. Which is the tx of choice?
A. Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. Radiation therapy
D. Ventricular shunt placement
Click here to see the answerA. Toxoplasmosis is commonly noted in HIV positive patients and presents with multiple ring-enhancing lesions. Treatment of choice for possible toxoplasmosis is sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine.
On examination of a pregnant patient the physician assistant notes a bluish or purplish discoloration of the vagina and cervix. This is called
A. Hegar’s sign.
B. McDonald’s sign.
C. Cullen’s sign
D. Chadwick’s sign
Click here to see the answerD. Chadwick’s sign is a bluish or purplish discoloration of the vagina and cervix.
A 52 year-old female comes to the office because of black stools for the past 3 days. She is afebrile and she has no pertinent physical examination abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study?
A. Stool for occult blood
B. Stool cultures
C. Sigmoidoscopy
D. Abdominal CT scan
Click here to see the answerA. Occult bleeding, as evidenced by the patient’s history of black stools, is initially verified by a positive fecal occult blood test.
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for the development of malignant melanoma?
A. male gender
B. inability to tan
C. Japanese ethnicity
D. brown-haired individuals
Click here to see the answerB. Inability to tan and propensity to burn are risk factors for developing malignant melanoma.
A 43 year-old data entry clerk presents with a one-month history of pain and tingling in the right thumb, index finger, and middle finger. Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s maneuver are positive. The most appropriate intervention at this time is
A. methylprednisolone (Medrol) dose pack.
B. splint in neutral position.
C. observation.
D. surgery.
Click here to see the answerB. Splinting in neutral position relieves impingement of the median nerve, thus improving symptoms of carpal tunnel.
Which of the following is a cause of prerenal azotemia?
A. Infection
B. Renal toxins
C. Poor renal perfusion
D. Urinary tract obstruction
Click here to see the answerC. Renal hypoperfusion is the cause of prerenal azotemia, which may be rapidly reversible when renal blood flow and glomerular ultrafiltration pressure are restored.
Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
A. Renal parenchymal disease
B. Primary aldosteronism
C. Oral contraceptive use
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Click here to see the answerA. Renal parenchymal disease is the most common cause of secondary hypertension.
A newborn weighs 8 pounds at birth. On average, what should the infant weigh at 1 year of age?
A. 16 pounds
B. 20 pounds
C. 24 pounds
D. 28 pounds
Click here to see the answerC. An infant will triple birth weight within the first year of life. A newborn that weighs 8 pounds at birth will weigh approximately 24 pounds at 1 year of age.
The most reliable sign of acute otitis media (AOM) is
A. bulging of the tympanic membrane.
B. loss of tympanic membrane mobility.
C. reddening of the tympanic membrane.
D. air bubbles behind the tympanic membrane.
Click here to see the answerB. Loss of tympanic membrane mobility during pneumoinsufflation is the most reliable sign for diagnosing acute
otitis media.
Looking for all the episodes?
This FREE series is limited to every 3rd episode, you can download and enjoy the complete audio series by joining The PANCE and PANRE Exam Academy.
I will be be releasing new episodes every two weeks. The Academy is currently discounted at $35 for the entire year, so sign up now.
This Podcast is also available on iTunes and Stitcher Radio for Android
iTunes: The Audio PANCE AND PANRE Podcast iTunes
Stitcher Radio: The Audio PANCE and PANRE Podcast Stitcher
And, if you haven’t already, make sure to download Brian Wallaces’ excellent Physician Assistant Exam Review Podcast. Follow along with Brian who covers new topics twice monthly and really does an amazing job!
8 min
September 04, 2014 The Audio PANCE and PANRE Board Review Podcast Episode 5
The Audio PANCE and PANRE is an audio board review series that includes 10 Multiple Choice PANCE and PANRE Board Review Questions in each episode.
I created this audio series to help you fill some downtime when you are unable to read (like in the car) with some useful board review.
I hope you enjoy this free audio component to the examination portion of this site. The full series is available to all members of the PANCE and PANRE Academy.
Questions
6 y/o male presents w/ hemarthrosis of the L knee. Coag studies: PT 12.5s (normal12-14 sec), INR 1.0, aPTT 58s (normal 18-28 sec), platelet 430,000/microliter (normal 150,000-450,000/microliter), & bleeding time 4m (normal 2-12m). Which is the best tx option for this pt?
A. Desmopressin acetate

B. Corticosteroids

C. Vitamin K

D. Cryoprecipitate
HIV+ pt presents w/ worsening dementia, fever, HA, & R hemiparesis. Brain MRI reveals 6 lesions throughout the brain that show ring enhancement & surrounding edema. Which is the tx of choice?
A. Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

C. Radiation therapy

D. Ventricular shunt placement
On examination of a pregnant patient the physician assistant notes a bluish or purplish discoloration of the vagina and cervix. This is called
A. Hegar’s sign.

B. McDonald’s sign.

C. Cullen’s sign

D. Chadwick’s sign
A 52 year-old female comes to the office because of black stools for the past 3 days. She is afebrile and she has no pertinent physical examination abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study?
A. Stool for occult blood

B. Stool cultures

C. Sigmoidoscopy

D. Abdominal CT scan
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for the development of malignant melanoma?
A. male gender

B. inability to tan

C. Japanese ethnicity

D. brown-haired individuals
A 43 year-old data entry clerk presents with a one-month history of pain and tingling in the right thumb, index finger, and middle finger. Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s maneuver are positive. The most appropriate intervention at this time is
A. methylprednisolone (Medrol) dose pack.

B. splint in neutral position.

C. observation.

D. surgery.
Which of the following is a cause of prerenal azotemia?
A. Infection

B. Renal toxins

C. Poor renal perfusion

D. Urinary tract obstruction
Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
A. Renal parenchymal disease

B. Primary aldosteronism

C. Oral contraceptive use

D. Cushing’s syndrome
A newborn weighs 8 pounds at birth. On average, what should the infant weigh at 1 year of age?
A. 16 pounds

B. 20 pounds

C. 24 pounds

D. 28 pounds
The most reliable sign of acute otitis media (AOM) is
A. bulging of the tympanic membrane.

B. loss of tympanic membrane mobility.

C. reddening of the tympanic membrane.

D. air bubbles behind the tympanic membrane.
Looking for all the episodes?
This FREE series is limited to every 3rd episode, you can download and enjoy the complete audio series by joining The PANCE and PANRE Exam Academy.
I will be be releasing new episodes every two weeks. The Academy is currently discounted at $35 for the entire year, so sign up now.
This Podcast is also available on iTunes and Stitcher Radio for Android

* iTunes:
8 min
July 21, 2014 The Audio PANCE and PANRE Board Review Podcast Episode 3
This FREE series is limited to every 3rd episode, you can download and enjoy the complete audio series by joining the PANCE and PANRE Exam Academy.
Questions and Answers
A 62 year-old homeless patient presents complaining of fever, weight loss, anorexia, night sweats and a chronic cough that recently became productive of purulent sputum that is blood streaked. On physical examination, the patient appears chronically ill and malnourished. Which of the following chest x-ray findings supports your suspected diagnosis?
A. Hyperinflation and flat diaphragms
B. Interstitial fibrosis and pleural thickening
C. Cavitary lesions involving the upper lobes
D. “Eggshell” calcification of hilar lymph nodes C. This patient most likely has tuberculosis.
A chest x-ray finding of cavitary lesions involving the upper lobes would support this suspected diagnosis.
Abduction of the shoulder against resistance helps localize pain in which of the following muscles of the shoulder girdle?
A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. Subscapularis
A. Abduction against resistance tests the supraspinatus.
What is the recommended method for screening pregnant women for gestational diabetes?
A. Fasting blood sugar and 2 hour post prandial
B. 50 gram glucose load followed by a blood sugar in 1 hour
C. 75 gram glucose load followed by a blood sugar in 2 hours
D. 100 gram glucose load followed by a blood sugar at 1 hour, 2 hours, and 3 hours
B. One hour Glucola is the screening test for gestational diabetes. It is a 50 gram glucose load, with a serum glucose obtained 1 hour after the dose. Normal value is less than 140 mg/dL.
A 45 year-old smoker presents with a sore mouth and increasing difficulty eating for two weeks. Physical examination reveals a 1 cm white lesion on the buccal mucosa that cannot be rubbed off. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Oral cancer
B. Oral candidiasis
C. Aphthous ulcer
D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
A. The presence of leukoplakia in a smoker over the age of 40 should be biopsied to rule out the presence of oral cancer.
A 25 year-old female presents to the emergency department after an episode of substernal chest pain with radiation to the middle of her back that came on suddenly and lasted for about four minutes this morning while in bed. She denies previous episodes. Examination is unremarkable, but she appears jittery. Toxicology screen is positive for cocaine. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in this patient?
A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
B. Diltiazem (Cardizem)
C. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
D. Propanolol (Inderal)
D. Pure Beta blockers, such as propranol, can cause a paradoxical hypertension because of unopposed alpha-adrenergic effects.
Which immunoglobulin is the first to respond during the primary immune response for a gram positive bacterial infection?
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgE
A. IgM is the first immunoglobin to respond during the acute exposure. This immunoglobulin promotes opsonization and phagocytosis. IgG is the immunoglobulin that responds during the secondary exposure. IgE is the immunoglobulin that responds during an allergic response as well as during a parasitic infection. IgA is an antibody found in colostrums and GI secretions.
A patient with obsessive compulsive disorder would most likely have which of the following findings?
A. Raw, red hands
B. Priapism
C. Memory impairment
D. Abdominal pain
A. Common manifestations of obsessive compulsive disorder include phobias of germ and contaminants which results in frequent handwashing leading to chafed and reddened hands. The other answers are inconsistent with obsessive compulsive disorder.
As a rule, solid foods such as cereal and fruits are best introduced into an infant’s diet at approximately
A. 1 to 3 weeks.
B. 4 to 8 weeks.
C. 4 to 6 months.
D. 10 to 14 months.
C. The inclusion of solid foods in the diet is best done at approximately 4-6 months. Before 4 to 6 months of age does not contribute significantly to the infant’s health and it increases their risk of allergies and atopy.
A 56 year-old female four days post myocardial infarction presents with a new murmur. On examination the murmur is a grade 3/6 pansystolic murmur radiating to the axilla. She is dyspenic at rest and has rales throughout all her lung fields. Blood pressure is 108/68 mmHg, pulse 70 bpm. Which of the following would be the definitive clinical intervention?
A. Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation
B. Mitral valve replacement
C. Coronary artery bypass surgery
D. Immediate fluid bolus
B. MVR is the definitive intervention to correct MR caused by papillary muscle rupture.
During an influenza epidemic, a 6 year-old male is seen with fever and a severe sore throat. The parents report that his symptoms have not improved despite administration of aspirin. The next day, the parent calls to report that the child has persistent vomiting and increased lethargy. On examination, he is found to be delirious and disoriented with hyperactive reflexes. The liver edge is 3 cm below the right costal margin in the midclavicular line. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Reye’s syndrome
B. Measles encephalitis
C. Guillain-Barre syndrome
D. Acute bacterial meningitis
A. The suspected influenza associated with development of vomiting, progressive mental status changes, hyperreflexia, and hepatomegaly are consistent with a diagnosis of Reye’s syndrome.
What is the treatment of magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Nifedipine
B. Terbutaline
C. Potassium carbonate
D. Calcium gluconate
D. 10% calcium gluconate is used to treat magnesium sulfate toxicity.
8 min
July 21, 2014 The Audio PANCE and PANRE Board Review Podcast Episode 3

This FREE series is limited to every 3rd episode, you can download and enjoy the complete audio series by joining the PANCE and PANRE Exam Academy.
Questions and Answers
A 62 year-old homeless patient presents complaining of fever, weight loss, anorexia, night sweats and a chronic cough that recently became productive of purulent sputum that is blood streaked. On physical examination, the patient appears chronically ill and malnourished. Which of the following chest x-ray findings supports your suspected diagnosis?
A. Hyperinflation and flat diaphragms

B. Interstitial fibrosis and pleural thickening

C. Cavitary lesions involving the upper lobes

D. “Eggshell” calcification of hilar lymph nodes C. This patient most likely has tuberculosis.
A chest x-ray finding of cavitary lesions involving the upper lobes would support this suspected diagnosis.
Abduction of the shoulder against resistance helps localize pain in which of the following muscles of the shoulder girdle?
A. Supraspinatus

B. Infraspinatus

C. Teres minor

D. Subscapularis
A. Abduction against resistance tests the supraspinatus.
What is the recommended method for screening pregnant women for gestational diabetes?
A. Fasting blood sugar and 2 hour post prandial

B. 50 gram glucose load followed by a blood sugar in 1 hour

C. 75 gram glucose load followed by a blood sugar in 2 hours

D. 100 gram glucose load followed by a blood sugar at 1 hour, 2 hours, and 3 hours
B. One hour Glucola is the screening test for gestational diabetes. It is a 50 gram glucose load, with a serum glucose obtained 1 hour after the dose. Normal value is less than 140 mg/dL.
A 45 year-old smoker presents with a sore mouth and increasing difficulty eating for two weeks. Physical examination reveals a 1 cm white lesion on the buccal mucosa that cannot be rubbed off. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Oral cancer

B. Oral candidiasis

C. Aphthous ulcer

D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
A. The presence of leukoplakia in a smoker over the age of 40 should be biopsied to rule out the presence of oral cancer.
A 25 year-old female presents to the emergency department after an episode of substernal chest pain with radiation to the middle of her back that came on suddenly and lasted for about four minutes this morning while in bed. She denies previous episodes. Examination is unremarkable, but she appears jittery. Toxicology screen is positive for cocaine. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in this patient?
A. Lorazepam (Ativan)

B. Diltiazem (Cardizem)

C. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)

D. Propanolol (Inderal)
D. Pure Beta blockers, such as propranol, can cause a paradoxical hypertension because of unopposed alpha-adrenergic effects.
Which immunoglobulin is the first to respond during the primary immune response for a gram positive bacterial infection?
A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgA

D. IgE
A. IgM is the first immunoglobin to respond during the acute exposure. This immunoglobulin promotes opsonization and phagocytosis. IgG is the immunoglobulin that responds during the secondary exposure. IgE is the immunoglobulin that responds during an allergic response as well as during a parasitic infection. IgA is an antibody found in colostrums and GI secretions.
A patient with obsessive compulsive disorder would most likely have which of the following findings?
A. Raw, red hands

B. Priapism

C.
8 min