A 60-year-old male with documented ASCVD, obesity with BMI of 34, and type 2 diabetes presents for care. The patient reports he's currently feeling well without episodes of hypoglycemia. Current laboratory assessment includes the following. A1C is 8.6 % and his estimated GFR is at 62. Current medications include metformin at optimized dose and a sulfonyl urea.

Which of the following represents the nurse practitioner's next best action?

A. continue on current therapy and arrange for a three month follow up

B. discontinue the metformin and add a DPP4 inhibitor

C. add a GLP-1 inhibitor and discontinue the sulfonyl urea

D. add basal insulin and titrate to fasting glycemic goals

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